Reading this article on the playoff teams by Charles Robinson of Yahoo Sports. So he is projecting who is going to the playoff's and he has this to say:
http://sports.yahoo.com/nfl/news;_ylc=X3oD...=yhoo&type=lgns
New England Patriots (8-1). The Patriots are merely getting their ducks in a row in an attempt to lock up home-field advantage in the AFC. They need to get Ty Law back before January, but even if they don't, they'll still be the cream of the crop.
Final record: 13-3 and in as the AFC East champion. Home-field advantage throughout AFC playoffs.
Okay that's fine but this is confusing me
Pittsburgh Steelers (8-1). Duce Staley will come back healthy, eventually. Joey Porter will stop getting thrown out of games, hopefully. Ben Roethlisberger will lose an ounce or two of his ridiculous luster, undoubtedly. But Pittsburgh's defense and running game will make the Steelers practically impossible to beat the rest of the season.
Final record: 13-3 and in as the AFC North champion.
So Charles says the Patriots are going to have home-field advantage throughout the playoff's with a 13-3 record. But he also projects the Steelers to have a 13-3 final record. Now if the Steelers and Patriots end up with identical records how can the Patriots have homefield advantage since the Steelers beat them head to head? Is there anyway for the Pat's to get homefield advantage if they both end up with identical records?...................