DMD Posted November 18, 2009 Share Posted November 18, 2009 If a contractor does work for a homeowner and is paid in full, is it still possible that a subcontractor that he used can not be paid by him and place a lien on the homeowners house for the amount? There was no signed agreement between the homeowner and the subcontractor - how can he do that? If he can, what is to stop him from just placing a lien any home? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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